Exception to the s24 Tenant Tax loophole?

Exception to the s24 Tenant Tax loophole?

9:45 AM, 27th November 2017, About 7 years ago 15

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I have just been looking at the wording of the s24 legislation (Tenant Tax) and I noticed that one of the sub-sections state:

(4)An amount borrowed for purposes of a property business is not a dwelling-related loan so far as the amount is referable (on a just and reasonable apportionment) to so much of the property business as consists of the commercial letting of furnished holiday accommodation.

So I conclude that if a property is purchased with a commercial loan as a furnished holiday letting then it would not be affected by the Tenant Tax.

However, there is nothing I can see that then makes the property subject to the Tenant Tax if it is subsequently changed so as to be let as a standard AST (as it would still meet the criteria of having been purchased for the purpose of a holiday letting).

I guess the commercial lender would have to agree the change from a furnished holiday let to a standard AST letting, the same as when residential owners get consent to let from their mortgage providers, but if such a consent was granted by the commercial lender, then the property would presumably remain exempt from the s24 Tenant Tax???

I’ve no idea if this could work in practice, it just seemed a bit of a potential loophole in the s24 legislation.

Robert


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Puzzler

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18:24 PM, 6th December 2017, About 7 years ago

I think it would not qualify under the terms of the commercial loan. I have looked at getting comercial loans for holiday accommodation and it is extremely difficult plus you would have to provide accounts to your lender as it is a business loan so you can't slip it under the radar.

Michael Barnes

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23:10 PM, 4th March 2018, About 7 years ago

I would say 'no chance'.
It states that it is what the property is used for, not what the loan was taken out for. As soon as the property stops being "furnished holiday accommodation" within the "property business" it is no longer "not a dwelling-related loan".
Worryingly, it also seems to say that you have to apportion loans in proportion to the values when properties were brought into the business. So you cannot have, for example, £1M of holiday let property, £1M of residential property with £1M borrowing and allocate all borrowing to holiday lets; it has to be split £500K to each.

moneymanager

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14:00 PM, 9th March 2018, About 7 years ago

Reply to the comment left by Michael Barnes at 04/03/2018 - 23:10
Not sure on that; "so far as the amount is referable (on a just and reasonable apportionment) to so much of the property business as consists of the commercial letting of furnished holiday accommodation." If I have £500k of BTL borrowing on £1m and then buy a several holiday lets of an aggregate £1m on a 90% gearing I can see nothing "unreasonable" in ascribing the whole of the new debt to the new activity.

Michael Barnes

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12:39 PM, 10th March 2018, About 7 years ago

Reply to the comment left by at 09/03/2018 - 14:00
Maybe.
Depends on what HMRC and the courts think 🙂

Michael Barnes

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12:39 PM, 10th March 2018, About 7 years ago

Reply to the comment left by at 09/03/2018 - 14:00
Maybe.
Depends on what HMRC and the courts think 🙂

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